1. A Slightly movable joint is a :
A. Synartrosis B. Amphiarthrosis
C.
Diarthrosis D. Gomphosis
2. The muscle that
closes the mouth is:
A. Masseter B.
Platysma
C. Levator labiv superiors D.
Buccinator
3. The nerves that
do not enter into the formation of a plexus are :
A. C1 - C5 B. T2 - T12
C. C4 - T5 D. C1 - T4
4. Hypothyroidism
in children causes :
A. Myxedema B.
Dwarfism
C. Cretinism D. Acromegaly
5. A line of tender
along the middle of the abdomen is called :
A. Linea Alba B. Linea nigra
C.
Linea aspera D.
Patent ductus Arteriosus
6. The normal
capacity of gall bladder is :
A. 60 ml B.
50 ml
C. 70 ml D. 40 ml
7. The bone named
as shin bone is :
A. Fibula B.
Ulna
C. Tibia D. Radius
8. The ligamentous
structure which attach to the posterior part of the tongue is:
A. Frenulum linguae B.
Papilla
C.
Uvula D.
Filiform papillae
9. The suprapleural
membrance, otherwise known as sibson’s facia on which the artery lies is :
A. Pleural artery
B.
Subclavian Artery
C. Phrenic artery D.
Coronary artery
10. The smallest
cranial nerve :
A. Olfactory B. Optic
C.
Oculomotor D. Trochlear
11. Hearing
apparatus situated in which portion of the temporal bone:
A. Petrous portion
B. squamous portion
C.
Zygoma D. Pterygoid
12. Small glands in
labia majora:
A. Bulbourethral gland
B. Bartholin’s gland
C.
Sebacious gland D. Coper’s gland
13. Normal bladder capacity is
:
A. 230 ml B. 260 ml
C.
250 ml D. 270 ml
14. Which cell forms the
epidermal layer of skin:
A. Columnar epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Stratified epithelium
D.
Ciliated epithelium
15. Muscles of cheek is :
A. Buccinator B.
Masseter
C.
Platysma D. Orbicularis
oculi
16. Seventh cervical vertebra :
A. Atlas B.
Vertebral prominens
C.
Pedicle D. Coccyx
17. Mucoid tissue found in
human eye:
A. Aqueous humour
B. Vitreous humour
C. Tears D. Warton’s
jelly
18. Smallest carpal bone :
A. Pisiform B.
Trapezium
C. Lunate D. Hametate
19. Vitamin D deficiency in
adults result :
A. Roclets B. Osteoporosis
C.
Osteomalacia D. Scurvy
20. Teeth in their socket are
example of :
A. Gomphosis B. Syndesmosis
C.
Synarthroses D. Amphiarthroses
21. A ring shaped fold of dura
matter that covers the cella turcica :
A. Hypophysis
cerebri
B. Diaphragma sellae
C.
Tentorium cerebelli D. Falx cerebelli
22. At birth the breast often
secrete milk in male as well as female known as:
A. Colostrum B. Witches milk
C. Galactocele D. All the above
23. Normal pressure of CSF is :
A. 60 – 140 mm of
water
B. 50-80 mm
of water
C.
20-30 mm of water
D. 80-120 mm of water
24. Total number of ventricle
in brain :
A. 4 B. 3
C.
6 D. 2
25. Embedded mass of white
matter in each cerebral hemisphere are certain small areas of gray matter :
A. Corpus callosum B. medulla
C. Basal ganglia D.
Pons Varolli
26. Covering membrance of
myofibril :
A. Sarcolemma B.
Muscle bundle
C. Neurilemma D.
Myosine
27. The communication between 3rd
and 4th ventricles of brain :
A. Foramen of Luska
B.
Sylvius aqueduct
C. Foramen of Monro D. Arachnoid vill
28. Bulbo urethral gland is :
A. Bartholin’s gland B. Cowper’s gland
C. Brunner’s gland
D.
Glands of Montgomery
29. Largest papillae present on
tongue :
A. Circumvallate papilla
B. Fungiform papilla
C. Filiform papilla D.
Frenulum linguae
30. Colle’s fracture commonly
seen in :
A. Distal end of
radius
B. Proximal
end of radius
C. Any part
of Radius D. None
31. Epinephrin is secreted by :
A. Adrenal medulla B. Thyroid gland
C. Parathyroid
gland D. Adrenal cortex
32. Length of inguinal canal is
:
A. 4 cm B. 5 cm
C.
4.5 cm D.
3 cm
33. A patient is being prepared
for paracentesis to reduce ascites, before the procedure the nurse should
instruct the patient to :
A. Empty his
bladder B. East low
fat diet
C. Remain nill orally for 24 hrs
D. Assume supine position
34. Early post operative
complication of cataract are as follows except:
A. Infection B. Retinal
detachment
C. Iris prolapse D.
Hyphema
35. The percentage of water in
the average adult human body is :
A. 80% B. 60%
C.
40% D. 20%
36. A client is to receive
Isuprel prn The effect of this is:
A. Produce sedation
B.
Relax bronchial spasm
C. Decrease blood pressure
D.
Increase bronchial secretion
37. While instructing
nitroglycerine therapy the most important fact is :
A.
Limit the number of tablet to 4 per day.
B.
Discontinue the medication if head ache
develops.
C.
Store the medication in a dark container
D.
Increase the number of tablets in dizziness
occurs.
38. Early
symptoms of morphine overdose include :
A. Slow pulse rate, respiration and
sedation
B. Slow
respiration, dilated pupil, restlessness
C. Profuse sweating, pinpoint pupils, and deep
sleep
D.
Slow respiration constricted pupil and deep
sleep
39.
Anginal pain increases with activity indicate :
A.
Myocardial insufficiency
B. Myocardial ischemia
C.
Myocardial infarction
D. Coronary thrombosis
40.
A cardiogenic
shock is :
A. An irreversible process
B.
A Failure of peripheral circulation
C.
Fleeting reaction to tissue injury
D.
Caused by decreased blood volume
41. Adams strokes syndrome is a
result of :
A. Complete atrioventricular block
B.
Bundle branch block
C.
Myocardial infarction
D. Cardiac arrhythmia
42. The important feature of
Adams strokes syndrome is :
A. Nausea and
vertigo
B.
Flushing and slurred speech
C.
Cephalgia and blurred vision
D.
Syncope and low ventricular rate
43. The highest incidence of
Hodgkin’s disease is in :
A. Children B. Young
adults
C.
Elderly persons D. Middle aged.
44. Vitamin K is essential for
normal blood clotting because it promotes :
A. Platelet aggregation
B.
Ionization of blood calcium
C.
Fibrinogen formation by the liver
D. Prothrombin
formation by liver
45. A bilirubin
level above 2 mg/100ml blood volume may indicate:
A.
Hemolytic Anemia B. Pernicious anemia
C.
Decreased rate of red cell destruction.
D.
Low oxygen carrying capacity of RBC
46. Degree of edema can best
assessed by ;
A. Weighing the client B. Checking for pitting
C. Measuring affected area
D. Observing intake and out put
47. A patient with atelectasis
can be presented with :
A. Slow, deep respiration
B.
A dry unproductive cough
C. A
normal oral temperature
D. Diminished
breath sounds
48. To help a client to obtain
maximum benefits after postural drainage:
A. Administer oxygen as necessary
B. Place
the patient in sitting position
C.
Encourage the client to cough deeply
D. Encourage the client to rest for 30
minutes
49. The probable cause of
spontaneous pneumothorax is a :
A. Pleural friction rib
B. Tracheoesophageal fistula
C. Rupture of sub pleural bleb
D. Puncture wound on the chest wall
50. If the client become
extremely drowsy and the pulse and respiration increased followed by a
spontaneous pneumothorax may
indicate :
A. Hypercapnia B.
Hypokalemia
C. Elevated PO2 D.
Respiratory alkalosis
51. The most common
complication of chronic asthma is :
A. Atlectasis B. Emphysema
C.
Pheumothorax D. Pulmonary fibrosis
52. A client has chest tube
drainage system. When caring for this client the nurse should :
A. Palpate surrounding area for crepitus
B.
Clamp the chest tube when suctioning
C.
Change the dressing aseptically
D.
Empty the drainage chamber
53. The position of a patient
who is recovering from general anesthesia is:
A. Supine position B.
Side lying position
C. High fowlers position
D.
Semifowler’s position
54. When the gavage tube is
inserted the client should place in:
A. Supine position B.
Mid-fowlers position
C. High fowler’s
position D. Side
lying position
55. Most peptic ulcer occurring
in the stomach are :
A. Pyloric portion B. Cardiac portion
C. Esophageal portion D. Body of the stomach
56. The maximum safe height of
enema can during administration of enema:
A. 30 cm B.
37 cm
C. 45 cm D. 66 cm
57. A client with
cholelithiasis experience discomfort after ingesting fatty goods because :
A. Fatty foods are hard to digest
B.
Bile flow into the intestine is obstructed
C. The liver is manufacturing
inadequate bile
D. Inadequate closure of ampulla of vater
58. After cholecystectomy the client’s diet will be :
A. High in fat and carbohydrate
B. High in protein and calorie
C. Low in fat
D. Low in protein and carbohyd rate.
59. The major cause of post transfusion hepatitis is :
A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D
60. Emergency medical treatment for bleeding esophageal varices but does not control bleeding is :
A. Gastric lavage B. Gastric suctioning
C. Balloon tamponade D. Amicar
61. The nurse should protect the client’s skin surrounding a colostomy opening by using :
A. Alcohol B. Mineral oil
C. Skin barriers D. Tincture of benzoin
62. When performing a colostomy irrigation insert the catheter into the stoma :
A. 5 cm B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm D. 20 cm
63. The solution of choice used to maintain patency of intestinal tube is ;
A. Sterile water B. Isotonic solution
C. Hypotonic solution D. Hypertonic solution
64. Cushing’s syndrome may be associated with diabetes mellitus because :
A. Cortical hormones stimulate rapid
weight less
B. Excessive ACTH damages pancreatic cells
C. Tissue catabolism results in negative
nitrogen balance
D. Glucocorticoids accelerate process of
gluconeogenesis
65. Desmopresin Acetate is a drug of choice for diabetes insipidus. The effectiveness should be evaluated by the clients :
A. Pulse rate B. Serum glucose
C. Arterial blood pH D. Intake and out put
66. An important nursing intervention specific for client with addison’s disease is:
A. Encouraging exercise
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Protecting from exertion
D. Monitor for hypokalemia
67. The ABG analysis reflect diabetic acidosis may be :
A. Increased PH B. Decreased PO2
C. Increased PCO2 D. Decreased HCO3
68. Underproduction of thyroxine produces :
A. Myxedema B. Acromegaly
C. Graves disease D. Cushing’s disease
69. The most appropriate diet for a client with Grave’s disease would be :
A. Soft B. High caloric
C. Low Sodium D. High roughage
70. The hormone that tends to decrease calcium concentration in blood :
A. Calcitonin B. Aldosterone
C. Triiodothyronine D. Parathyroid hormone
71. The most commonest cause for diabetics ketoacidosis :
A. Emotional stress B. Presence of infection
C. Increases insulin dose
D. Inadequate food intake
72. Primary treatment of diabetic acidosis is :
A. IV fluid B. Potassium
C. NPH insulin D. Oral glucose
73. A seizure that is characterized by an abrupt loss of consciousness that occur without any warn :
A. Randmal seizure B. Petitmal seizure
C. Psychomotor seizure D. Jacksonian March
74. Name one adjunctive therapy for client with refrartory mysthania gravis :
A. Plasmapheresis B. Pyridostigmine
C. Neostigmine D. Lanoxin
75. Most common intracranial tumor :
A. Gliomas B. Oligodendrogliomas
C. Ependymomas D. Pituitary tumor
76. Manitol is contraindicted for a patient with ;
A. Cardiac disorder B. Hepatic disorder
C. Respiratory disorder D. Renal disorder
77. Caustive organism of urinary tract infection :
A. E.coli B. Staphylococci
C. Pneumococci D. Niesseria
78. Widely used antibiotic for the treatment of UTI :
A. Erythromyin B. Pencillin
C. Sulfonamide D. Neomycine
79. Inability to detect a specific sensation is :
A. Agnosia B. Stereognosis
C. Paresthesia D. Anosmia
80. A progressive degenerative disease that affect the myelin sheeth of neuron :
A. Parkinson’s disease B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Guillain Barre syndrome D. Gliomas
81. Disease associated with upper motor lesion ;
A. Mysthenia gravis B. Polyneuritis
C. Poliomyelitis D. Cerebral palsy
82. Stasis of urine is known to predispose to the formation of :
A. Calcium stone B. Gluconite stone
C. Phosphatic stone D. Oxaloacetic stone
83. A procedure done to relieve interactable pain in the upper thorax :
A. Rhizotomy B. Rhinotomy
C. Cordotomy D. Chondrectomy
84. Pressure on the jugular vein increase the pressure in CSF. This is known as:
A. Homan’s sign B. Romberg’s sign
C. Chvostek’ sign D. Queckenstedt’s sign
85. Intramedullary nailing is used in treatment of :
A. Slipped epiphysis of the femur
B. Fracture of the shaft of the femur
C. Fracture of neck of femur
D. Intertrochanteric fracture
86. After total hip replacement surgery avoid placing the client in a:
A. Supine position B. Lateral position
C. Orthopneic D. Semi-fowler’s position
87. The joints most likely to be involved in a client with osteoarthritis are the:
A. Hip and knees B. Angle and metatarsals
C. Fingers and metacarpals
D. Cervical spine and shoulder
88. The primary consideration when caring for a client with Rheumatoid arthritis
A. Surgery B. Comfort
C. Education D. Motivation
89. For the diagnosis of Multiple myeloma the test done is :
A. Alkaline phosphate B. Pancreatic lipase
C. Uric acid D. Bence Jones protein
90. A client with osteoporosis is vulnerable to :
A. Fatigue fracture B. Pathologic fracture
C. Greenstick fracture D. Compound fracture
91. Dexamethasone may be administered to a client after a stroke to :
A. Improve renal blood flow
B. Maintain circulatory volume
C. Reduce intracranial pressure
D. Prevent development of thrombi
92. Speech center is situated in :
A. Parietal lobe B. Frontal lobe
C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe
93. A temporary ileostomy is changed :
A. Every 5 – 8 days B. Every 2 – 3 days
C. Every 3 – 4 days D. Every 4 – 7 days
94. The foot drop can be prevented by the use of :
A. Splint B. Blocks
C. Cradles D. Sand bag
95. Permanent ileostomy should be changed :
A. 6 months of one year B. 4 – 6 years
C. 1 – 2 years D. 3 – 4 years
96. Why bleeding occurs after ileostomy :
A. Injury to the ileum
B. Lack of vitamin K synthesis
C. Ulceration around skin D. Infection
97. Name the colostomy performed on a temporary basis :
A. Transverse colostomy
B. Mucous colostomy
C. Longitudinal colostomy
D. Ascending colostomy
98. A procedure for injecting a radiopaque substance into the duct of salivary gland
A. Apicocectomy B. Glossectomy
C. Sialogram D. Pyelogram
99. Absence of peristalsis in the esophagus:
A. Esophageal stricture B. Diverticulum
C. Hiatus Hernia D. Achalasia
100. Bulging of esophageal mucosa through weakened portion is called ;
A. Achalasia B. Achlorhydria
C. Hiatus Hernia D. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Inadequate closure of ampulla of vater
58. After cholecystectomy the client’s diet will be :
A. High in fat and carbohydrate
B. High in protein and calorie
C. Low in fat
D. Low in protein and carbohyd rate.
59. The major cause of post transfusion hepatitis is :
A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D
60. Emergency medical treatment for bleeding esophageal varices but does not control bleeding is :
A. Gastric lavage B. Gastric suctioning
C. Balloon tamponade D. Amicar
61. The nurse should protect the client’s skin surrounding a colostomy opening by using :
A. Alcohol B. Mineral oil
C. Skin barriers D. Tincture of benzoin
62. When performing a colostomy irrigation insert the catheter into the stoma :
A. 5 cm B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm D. 20 cm
63. The solution of choice used to maintain patency of intestinal tube is ;
A. Sterile water B. Isotonic solution
C. Hypotonic solution D. Hypertonic solution
64. Cushing’s syndrome may be associated with diabetes mellitus because :
A. Cortical hormones stimulate rapid
weight less
B. Excessive ACTH damages pancreatic cells
C. Tissue catabolism results in negative
nitrogen balance
D. Glucocorticoids accelerate process of
gluconeogenesis
65. Desmopresin Acetate is a drug of choice for diabetes insipidus. The effectiveness should be evaluated by the clients :
A. Pulse rate B. Serum glucose
C. Arterial blood pH D. Intake and out put
66. An important nursing intervention specific for client with addison’s disease is:
A. Encouraging exercise
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Protecting from exertion
D. Monitor for hypokalemia
67. The ABG analysis reflect diabetic acidosis may be :
A. Increased PH B. Decreased PO2
C. Increased PCO2 D. Decreased HCO3
68. Underproduction of thyroxine produces :
A. Myxedema B. Acromegaly
C. Graves disease D. Cushing’s disease
69. The most appropriate diet for a client with Grave’s disease would be :
A. Soft B. High caloric
C. Low Sodium D. High roughage
70. The hormone that tends to decrease calcium concentration in blood :
A. Calcitonin B. Aldosterone
C. Triiodothyronine D. Parathyroid hormone
71. The most commonest cause for diabetics ketoacidosis :
A. Emotional stress B. Presence of infection
C. Increases insulin dose
D. Inadequate food intake
72. Primary treatment of diabetic acidosis is :
A. IV fluid B. Potassium
C. NPH insulin D. Oral glucose
73. A seizure that is characterized by an abrupt loss of consciousness that occur without any warn :
A. Randmal seizure B. Petitmal seizure
C. Psychomotor seizure D. Jacksonian March
74. Name one adjunctive therapy for client with refrartory mysthania gravis :
A. Plasmapheresis B. Pyridostigmine
C. Neostigmine D. Lanoxin
75. Most common intracranial tumor :
A. Gliomas B. Oligodendrogliomas
C. Ependymomas D. Pituitary tumor
76. Manitol is contraindicted for a patient with ;
A. Cardiac disorder B. Hepatic disorder
C. Respiratory disorder D. Renal disorder
77. Caustive organism of urinary tract infection :
A. E.coli B. Staphylococci
C. Pneumococci D. Niesseria
78. Widely used antibiotic for the treatment of UTI :
A. Erythromyin B. Pencillin
C. Sulfonamide D. Neomycine
79. Inability to detect a specific sensation is :
A. Agnosia B. Stereognosis
C. Paresthesia D. Anosmia
80. A progressive degenerative disease that affect the myelin sheeth of neuron :
A. Parkinson’s disease B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Guillain Barre syndrome D. Gliomas
81. Disease associated with upper motor lesion ;
A. Mysthenia gravis B. Polyneuritis
C. Poliomyelitis D. Cerebral palsy
82. Stasis of urine is known to predispose to the formation of :
A. Calcium stone B. Gluconite stone
C. Phosphatic stone D. Oxaloacetic stone
83. A procedure done to relieve interactable pain in the upper thorax :
A. Rhizotomy B. Rhinotomy
C. Cordotomy D. Chondrectomy
84. Pressure on the jugular vein increase the pressure in CSF. This is known as:
A. Homan’s sign B. Romberg’s sign
C. Chvostek’ sign D. Queckenstedt’s sign
85. Intramedullary nailing is used in treatment of :
A. Slipped epiphysis of the femur
B. Fracture of the shaft of the femur
C. Fracture of neck of femur
D. Intertrochanteric fracture
86. After total hip replacement surgery avoid placing the client in a:
A. Supine position B. Lateral position
C. Orthopneic D. Semi-fowler’s position
87. The joints most likely to be involved in a client with osteoarthritis are the:
A. Hip and knees B. Angle and metatarsals
C. Fingers and metacarpals
D. Cervical spine and shoulder
88. The primary consideration when caring for a client with Rheumatoid arthritis
A. Surgery B. Comfort
C. Education D. Motivation
89. For the diagnosis of Multiple myeloma the test done is :
A. Alkaline phosphate B. Pancreatic lipase
C. Uric acid D. Bence Jones protein
90. A client with osteoporosis is vulnerable to :
A. Fatigue fracture B. Pathologic fracture
C. Greenstick fracture D. Compound fracture
91. Dexamethasone may be administered to a client after a stroke to :
A. Improve renal blood flow
B. Maintain circulatory volume
C. Reduce intracranial pressure
D. Prevent development of thrombi
92. Speech center is situated in :
A. Parietal lobe B. Frontal lobe
C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe
93. A temporary ileostomy is changed :
A. Every 5 – 8 days B. Every 2 – 3 days
C. Every 3 – 4 days D. Every 4 – 7 days
94. The foot drop can be prevented by the use of :
A. Splint B. Blocks
C. Cradles D. Sand bag
95. Permanent ileostomy should be changed :
A. 6 months of one year B. 4 – 6 years
C. 1 – 2 years D. 3 – 4 years
96. Why bleeding occurs after ileostomy :
A. Injury to the ileum
B. Lack of vitamin K synthesis
C. Ulceration around skin D. Infection
97. Name the colostomy performed on a temporary basis :
A. Transverse colostomy
B. Mucous colostomy
C. Longitudinal colostomy
D. Ascending colostomy
98. A procedure for injecting a radiopaque substance into the duct of salivary gland
A. Apicocectomy B. Glossectomy
C. Sialogram D. Pyelogram
99. Absence of peristalsis in the esophagus:
A. Esophageal stricture B. Diverticulum
C. Hiatus Hernia D. Achalasia
100. Bulging of esophageal mucosa through weakened portion is called ;
A. Achalasia B. Achlorhydria
C. Hiatus Hernia D. Esophageal diverticulum
Answers:-
1. B. 2.
C. 3. A. 4. C. 5. A. 6. A. 7.
C.
8. A. 9. B. 10. A. 11. A. 12. B. 13. A. 14. C.
15. B. 16. B. 17. B. 18. A. 19. C. 20. A. 21. B.
22. B. 23. A. 24. A. 25. C. 26. A. 27. B. 28. B.
29. A. 30. B. 31. A. 32. A. 33. A. 34. D. 35. B.
36. B. 37. C. 38. D. 39. B. 40. B. 41. A. 42. D.
43. B. 44. D. 45. A. 46. C. 47. D. 48. C. 49. C.
50. A. 51. B. 52. A. 53. B. 54. C. 55. A. 56. C.
57. B. 58. B. 59. C. 60. B. 61. C. 62. B. 63. B.
64. D. 65. D. 66. C. 67. D. 68. A. 69. B. 70. A.
71. B. 72. A. 73. B. 74. A. 75. A. 76. A. 77. A.
78. C. 79. A. 80. B. 81. D. 82. C. 83. A. 84. D.
85. B. 86. C. 87. A. 88. B. 89. D. 90. B. 91. C.
92. A. 93. C. 94. A. 95. D. 96. B. 97. A. 98. C.
99. D. 100. D.
8. A. 9. B. 10. A. 11. A. 12. B. 13. A. 14. C.
15. B. 16. B. 17. B. 18. A. 19. C. 20. A. 21. B.
22. B. 23. A. 24. A. 25. C. 26. A. 27. B. 28. B.
29. A. 30. B. 31. A. 32. A. 33. A. 34. D. 35. B.
36. B. 37. C. 38. D. 39. B. 40. B. 41. A. 42. D.
43. B. 44. D. 45. A. 46. C. 47. D. 48. C. 49. C.
50. A. 51. B. 52. A. 53. B. 54. C. 55. A. 56. C.
57. B. 58. B. 59. C. 60. B. 61. C. 62. B. 63. B.
64. D. 65. D. 66. C. 67. D. 68. A. 69. B. 70. A.
71. B. 72. A. 73. B. 74. A. 75. A. 76. A. 77. A.
78. C. 79. A. 80. B. 81. D. 82. C. 83. A. 84. D.
85. B. 86. C. 87. A. 88. B. 89. D. 90. B. 91. C.
92. A. 93. C. 94. A. 95. D. 96. B. 97. A. 98. C.
99. D. 100. D.
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